Banking awareness carries real weight in IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk mains, SBI PO, SBI Clerk mains and RRB exams, and most of it comes from the past year's banking news. Here are 100 questions from 2026 banking and RBI news, newest first. Try each one before opening the answer.
For the stories behind these questions, see Banking Awareness on PrepZen — filter by RBI, SEBI, Payment Systems, Insurance and more.
October 2026
Q1. Which private sector bank partnered with Apple for the launch of Apple Pay in India with its Visa and Mastercard credit cards?
- (A) HDFC Bank
- (B) ICICI Bank
- (C) Axis Bank
- (D) Kotak Mahindra Bank
- (E) IndusInd Bank
Show answer
Answer: (C) Axis Bank — Apple Pay officially marked its launch in India starting with Axis Bank-issued Visa and Mastercard credit cards for digital payments.
Q2. How much monetary penalty was imposed by the Reserve Bank of India on Hero FinCorp Limited for violating Fair Practices Code directions?
- (A) ₹2.70 lakh
- (B) ₹3.10 lakh
- (C) ₹5.00 lakh
- (D) ₹10.00 lakh
- (E) ₹15.00 lakh
Show answer
Answer: (D) ₹10.00 lakh — The Reserve Bank of India imposed a monetary penalty of ₹10 lakh on Hero FinCorp Limited for non-compliance with directions regarding the Fair Practices Code for Lenders, specifically for charging excess interest.
Q3. What is the Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit set by the RBI for the Central Government for the second half of FY 2026–27?
- (A) ₹40,000 crore
- (B) ₹50,000 crore
- (C) ₹60,000 crore
- (D) ₹75,000 crore
- (E) ₹1,00,000 crore
Show answer
Answer: (B) ₹50,000 crore — The Reserve Bank of India, in consultation with the Government of India, decided to fix the Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit at ₹50,000 crore for the second half of the financial year 2026–27 (October 2026 to March 2027).
September 2026
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the FASTag Annual Pass: 1. It is valid for 1 year or 200 toll-plaza crossings, whichever is earlier. 2. It was launched on 15 August 2025. 3. It can be purchased for commercial freight vehicles only. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) 1 and 2 only
- (B) 2 and 3 only
- (C) 1 and 3 only
- (D) 1, 2 and 3
- (E) None of the above
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only — The FASTag Annual Pass is available exclusively for eligible non-commercial vehicles, not freight/commercial vehicles, making statement 3 incorrect.
Q5. Regarding the CGTMSE credit guarantee cover implemented on TReDS, which statement is INCORRECT?
- (A) It provides a 75% guarantee cover on defaulted invoice amounts.
- (B) The maximum revolving limit for an MSE buyer is ₹10 crore.
- (C) The maximum revolving limit for an MSE seller is ₹5 crore.
- (D) M1xchange became the first platform to settle a CGTMSE-backed invoice.
- (E) Both participating buyers and sellers must belong to the MSE category.
Show answer
Answer: (C) The maximum revolving limit for an MSE seller is ₹5 crore. — Statement C is incorrect because the maximum revolving exposure limit for an MSE seller under the CGTMSE mechanism on TReDS is ₹2 crore, not ₹5 crore.
Q6. What is the annual coupon rate carried by NaBFID's debut 10-year US dollar-denominated bond issue worth $750 million?
- (A) 5.850%
- (B) 6.122%
- (C) 6.375%
- (D) 6.500%
- (E) 5.980%
Show answer
Answer: (B) 6.122% — The debut 10-year US dollar-denominated bond raised by the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) carries a coupon of 6.122%.
Q7. Where is the 11th Annual Meeting of the Board of Governors of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) being held?
- (A) Beijing, China
- (B) Doha, Qatar
- (C) Abu Dhabi, UAE
- (D) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
- (E) New Delhi, India
Show answer
Answer: (B) Doha, Qatar — The 11th Annual Meeting of the Board of Governors of AIIB is held in Doha, Qatar, attended by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
Q8. What is the primary ticket-size investment bracket designated for early-stage startups under the SEBI-approved IIT-Madras Unicorn Venture Fund launched in Bengaluru?
- (A) Rs 1 crore to Rs 5 crore
- (B) Rs 2 crore to Rs 10 crore
- (C) Rs 5 crore to Rs 20 crore
- (D) Rs 10 crore to Rs 50 crore
- (E) Rs 25 crore to Rs 75 crore
Show answer
Answer: (C) Rs 5 crore to Rs 20 crore — The newly launched IIT-Madras Unicorn Venture Fund, rolled out in partnership with Unicorn India Ventures, will disburse growth equity ticket sizes of Rs 5 crore to Rs 20 crore to qualifying early-stage startups.
August 2026
Q9. How many RBI-regulated TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platforms are currently operational in India?
- (A) 3
- (B) 4
- (C) 5
- (D) 6
- (E) 7
Show answer
Answer: (E) 7 — There are currently 5 operational TReDS platforms: RXIL, M1xchange, Invoicemart, C2treds, and DTX.
Q10. Under EPFO's 'VISHWAS 2026' scheme, what is the reduced monthly penalty rate for employer default delays ranging between 2 months and 4 months (for defaults prior to 14 June 2024)?
- (A) 0.10% per month
- (B) 0.25% per month
- (C) 0.50% per month
- (D) 0.75% per month
- (E) 1.00% per month
Show answer
Answer: (C) 0.50% per month — Under VISHWAS 2026, defaults delayed for more than 2 months up to 4 months attract a penalty of 0.50% per month.
Q11. Which bank partnered with EazyDiner to launch a lifetime-free Platinum credit card on the RuPay network linked to UPI payments?
- (A) HDFC Bank
- (B) IndusInd Bank
- (C) Axis Bank
- (D) ICICI Bank
- (E) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Show answer
Answer: (B) IndusInd Bank — IndusInd Bank partnered with EazyDiner to introduce the EazyDiner IndusInd Bank Platinum RuPay Credit Card.
Q12. Which global financial institution has partnered to acquire up to a 49.9% stake in Jio Credit Limited for approximately ₹18,268 crore?
- (A) JPMorgan Chase
- (B) Citigroup
- (C) Bank of America
- (D) HSBC
- (E) Morgan Stanley
Show answer
Answer: (C) Bank of America — Bank of America announced a strategic deal to acquire up to 49.9% stake in Jio Credit Limited (subsidiary of JFSL) valued at nearly ₹18,268 crore.
Q13. Which specific section of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 is proposed to be amended under the Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
- (A) Section 5
- (B) Section 10A
- (C) Section 18
- (D) Section 25
- (E) Section 31
Show answer
Answer: (B) Section 10A — The Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposes to amend Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, prompting government clarifications on UPI fee structures.
Q14. Which private sector bank recently obtained RBI approval to set up a wholly-owned stock broking subsidiary?
- (A) HDFC Bank
- (B) ICICI Bank
- (C) IndusInd Bank
- (D) Axis Bank
- (E) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Show answer
Answer: (C) IndusInd Bank — IndusInd Bank has received approval from the RBI to establish a wholly owned subsidiary to conduct stock broking operations.
Q15. Under RBI's Scale-Based Regulation (SBR) framework, what is the minimum asset size threshold for an NBFC to be categorized under the Upper Layer (NBFC-UL)?
- (A) ₹10,000 crore
- (B) ₹25,000 crore
- (C) ₹50,000 crore
- (D) ₹1,00,000 crore
- (E) ₹2,00,000 crore
Show answer
Answer: (D) ₹1,00,000 crore — Under RBI's Scale-Based Regulation, the Upper Layer (NBFC-UL) comprises NBFCs with an asset size of ₹1,00,000 crore and above based on the latest audited balance sheet.
Q16. Which global entity partnered with Bajaj General Insurance Ltd to deliver multi-country commercial insurance solutions?
- (A) Munich Re
- (B) Swiss Re Corporate Solutions
- (C) Hannover Re
- (D) Allianz SE
- (E) AXA XL
Show answer
Answer: (B) Swiss Re Corporate Solutions — Bajaj General Insurance Ltd partnered with Swiss Re Corporate Solutions, headquartered in Zurich, Switzerland, to provide commercial insurance for Indian firms operating abroad and foreign firms setting up operations in India.
Q17. Which specific provision of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 is proposed to be amended to reintroduce the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR)?
- (A) Section A
- (B) Section 10B
- (C) Section 25
- (D) Section 18
- (E) Section 3A
Show answer
Answer: (A) Section A — The Ministry of Finance proposed amendments to Section A of the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007, removing the mandatory zero-MDR clause to allow levying MDR on select digital payments.
Q18. What is the maximum limit per trade remittance permitted under the expanded perpetual AD Category-II licence granted to GlobalPay?
- (A) ₹5 lakh
- (B) ₹10 lakh
- (C) ₹15 lakh
- (D) ₹25 lakh
- (E) ₹50 lakh
Show answer
Answer: (D) ₹25 lakh — Under the expanded perpetual AD-II licence issued by the RBI, GlobalPay is allowed to execute inward and outward trade remittances up to ₹25 lakh.
Q19. What was the total transaction value processed by UPI in July 2026?
- (A) ₹28.92 lakh crore
- (B) ₹29.03 lakh crore
- (C) ₹29.53 lakh crore
- (D) ₹29.88 lakh crore
- (E) ₹29.90 lakh crore
Show answer
Answer: (D) ₹29.88 lakh crore — In July 2026, UPI set a monthly record by processing 23.66 billion transactions worth ₹29.88 lakh crore.
Q20. Regarding the proposed RBI guidelines for licensing Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), consider the following statements: 1. Fresh UCB licensing was halted by RBI in 2004. 2. Eligible entities must possess a minimum net worth of Rs 300 crore and a minimum operational history of 10 years. 3. Maximum Net NPA ratio permissible for eligibility is set at 5%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) 1 and 2 only
- (B) 2 and 3 only
- (C) 1 and 3 only
- (D) 1, 2 and 3
- (E) 1 only
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only — Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect as the maximum Net NPA ratio allowed is 3%, not 5%.
Q21. What is the maximum total stake the Government of India aims to divest in LIC under the OFS including the greenshoe option?
- (A) 2.5%
- (B) 3.5%
- (C) 4.0%
- (D) 6.5%
- (E) 10.0%
Show answer
Answer: (D) 6.5% — The Offer for Sale consists of a base offer of 2.5% and an additional greenshoe option of 4.0%, taking the total maximum divestment to 6.5%.
Q22. In its August monetary policy decision, what is the revised real GDP growth forecast for FY 2026-27 set by the RBI MPC?
- (A) 6.4%
- (B) 6.5%
- (C) 6.6%
- (D) 6.7%
- (E) 6.8%
Show answer
Answer: (D) 6.7% — The RBI Monetary Policy Committee revised the real GDP growth forecast upward for FY 2026-27 to 6.7% from the earlier projection of 6.6%.
Q23. Which agency constructed the new Income Tax Department office complex 'Aayakar Sindhu' inaugurated in Mumbai?
- (A) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
- (B) Central Public Works Department (CPWD)
- (C) NBCC India Limited
- (D) Engineering Projects India Ltd (EPIL)
- (E) Larsen & Toubro (L&T)
Show answer
Answer: (B) Central Public Works Department (CPWD) — The 'Aayakar Sindhu' office complex in Nariman Point, Mumbai, was constructed by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD).
Q24. Under the revised CGSMFI 2.0 guidelines, what is the mandatory minimum combined allocation percentage of guarantee cover reserved for small and medium MFIs?
- (A) 10%
- (B) 12%
- (C) 15%
- (D) 20%
- (E) 25%
Show answer
Answer: (C) 15% — Banks must now allocate at least 15% of the total guarantee cover under CGSMFI 2.0 to small and medium-sized MFIs, replacing the previous segregated structure of 5% and 10%.
Q25. Which of the following statements regarding the RBI's updated Bulk Deposit Interest Rate Directions 2026 is/are correct?
- (A) Only statement I is correct
- (B) Both statements I and II are correct
- (C) Only statement II is correct
- (D) Neither statement I nor II is correct
- (E) Statement II is correct but Statement I is invalid
Show answer
Answer: (B) Both statements I and II are correct — Statement I: The framework allows differential rates on bulk deposits based on LCR run-off rates from October 1, 2026. Statement II: Commercial banks and SFBs share a bulk deposit threshold of ₹3 crore, while RRBs have a threshold of ₹1 crore.
Q26. What is the total financial coverage limit under the sovereign-backed Protection & Indemnity (P&I) insurance product launched under the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP)?
- (A) USD 500 Million
- (B) USD 1.0 Billion
- (C) USD 1.5 Billion
- (D) USD 2.0 Billion
- (E) USD 2.5 Billion
Show answer
Answer: (C) USD 1.5 Billion — Under the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP), the government provides a sovereign guarantee offering a coverage limit of USD 1.5 Billion (approximately ₹12,980 Crore).
Q27. By what deadline must Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) achieve the mandated 10% Minimum Public Shareholding (MPS) under SEBI norms?
- (A) 16 May 2025
- (B) 16 May 2026
- (C) 16 May 2027
- (D) 31 December 2027
- (E) 31 March 2028
Show answer
Answer: (C) 16 May 2027 — The Government is diluting its stake via OFS in LIC to meet SEBI's minimum public shareholding requirement of 10% by 16 May 2027.
Q28. What is the name of the new insurance digital platform launched by Karnataka Bank in collaboration with SprintMoney?
- (A) KBL Digisure
- (B) KBL Finsurance
- (C) KBL InsureTech
- (D) KBL SmartCover
- (E) KBL LifeShield
Show answer
Answer: (B) KBL Finsurance — Karnataka Bank launched 'KBL Finsurance', a platform built by fintech SprintMoney, to integrate and automate insurance offerings across all branch locations.
Q29. What total penalty amount was imposed by SEBI on Zee Entertainment Enterprises Limited (ZEEL) and its promoters for securities law violations?
- (A) ₹1.00 crore
- (B) ₹1.48 crore
- (C) ₹5.00 crore
- (D) ₹10.50 crore
- (E) ₹2.36 crore
Show answer
Answer: (B) ₹1.48 crore — SEBI imposed penalties totaling ₹1.48 crore on Zee Entertainment Enterprises Limited (ZEEL) and its promoters for securities-law and corporate-governance violations.
Q30. What was the total volume of transactions processed by India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in July 2026?
- (A) 15.20 billion
- (B) 23.66 billion
- (C) 18.50 billion
- (D) 30.12 billion
- (E) 25.00 billion
Show answer
Answer: (B) 23.66 billion — India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) processed a record 23.66 billion transactions (2,366 crore transactions) in July 2026 with a total value of ₹29.88 lakh crore.
Q31. Which national instant payment platform of Maldives was linked with India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) for cross-border transactions?
- (A) PayNow
- (B) Favara
- (C) Pix
- (D) FPS
- (E) A network
Show answer
Answer: (B) Favara — Maldives' instant payment network, Favara, was linked with India's UPI to facilitate real-time funds transfer.
Q32. Which entity is a joint venture partner along with M Pallonji Group in ProTec General Insurance Limited?
- (A) True North
- (B) Reliance Capital
- (C) Tata Sons
- (D) Aditya Birla Group
- (E) PremjiInvest
Show answer
Answer: (A) True North — ProTec General Insurance is a joint venture between M Pallonji Group and True North (led by Divya Sehgal).
Q33. Which two organizations collaborated to launch the Favara-UPI cross-border payment corridor between Maldives and India?
- (A) NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) and Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA)
- (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Bank of Maldives
- (C) State Bank of India (SBI) and Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA)
- (D) Ministry of External Affairs and Ministry of Finance (Maldives)
- (E) International Monetary Fund (IMF) and National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
Show answer
Answer: (A) NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) and Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA) — The Favara-UPI payment corridor was jointly launched by NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) and the Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA).
July 2026
Q34. Which company became the fourth insurance entity to receive an operational licence from IRDAI in calendar year 2026?
- (A) Kiwi General Insurance
- (B) Allianz Jio Reinsurance
- (C) ProTec General Insurance Limited
- (D) Prudential HCL Health Insurance
- (E) Go Digit General Insurance
Show answer
Answer: (C) ProTec General Insurance Limited — ProTec General Insurance Limited became the fourth insurance entity to receive a licence from IRDAI in 2026, following Kiwi General, Allianz Jio Reinsurance, and Prudential HCL Health Insurance.
Q35. Which payment networks support the newly launched 'Google Pay Flex SBI Card'?
- (A) Only RuPay
- (B) Only Visa
- (C) RuPay and Visa
- (D) Mastercard and Visa
- (E) American Express and RuPay
Show answer
Answer: (C) RuPay and Visa — The Google Pay Flex SBI Card is available on both RuPay and Visa payment networks.
Q36. Under which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 did the Reserve Bank of India cancel the licence of Paytm Payments Bank Limited?
- (A) Section 35A
- (B) Section 22(4)
- (C) Section 45ZB
- (D) Section 11(2)
- (E) Section 21A
Show answer
Answer: (B) Section 22(4) — The Reserve Bank of India cancelled the banking licence of Paytm Payments Bank Limited under Section 22(4) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Q37. Which entity launched India's first employee-controlled 'Flexi Benefits Basket' enabled on UPI?
- (A) Paytm
- (B) OmniCard
- (C) PhonePe
- (D) Razorpay
- (E) Pine Labs
Show answer
Answer: (B) OmniCard — OmniCard, operated by Eroute Technologies Private Limited, launched India's first Flexi Benefits Basket on UPI.
Q38. Which iconic international landmark recently became the first UAE tourist attraction to accept UPI for online ticketing?
- (A) Sheikh Zayed Grand Mosque
- (B) Museum of the Future
- (C) Burj Khalifa
- (D) Louvre Abu Dhabi
- (E) Ain Dubai
Show answer
Answer: (C) Burj Khalifa — Burj Khalifa became the first UAE tourist landmark to integrate UPI for online ticket bookings via NIPL, NEOPAY, and Emaar Entertainment.
Q39. What amount was paid by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) as dividend to the Government of India for Financial Year 2025-26?
- (A) ₹10,500.00 crore
- (B) ₹12,207.25 crore
- (C) ₹14,800.50 crore
- (D) ₹9,650.75 crore
- (E) ₹15,000.00 crore
Show answer
Answer: (B) ₹12,207.25 crore — LIC presented a dividend payout of ₹12,207.25 crore to Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman for the Financial Year 2025-26.
Q40. What was the year-on-year growth rate of net profit recorded by Public Sector Banks in FY 2025–26?
- (A) 9.5%
- (B) 10.2%
- (C) 11.1%
- (D) 12.8%
- (E) 15.7%
Show answer
Answer: (C) 11.1% — The aggregate net profit of Public Sector Banks increased by 11.1% year-on-year to reach ₹1.98 lakh crore in FY 2025–26.
Q41. What total penalty amount was collected by private banks in FY 2025–26 for failing to maintain the Minimum Average Balance?
- (A) ₹2,137.92 crore
- (B) ₹3,450.00 crore
- (C) ₹4,948.71 crore
- (D) ₹5,100.50 crore
- (E) ₹6,200.00 crore
Show answer
Answer: (C) ₹4,948.71 crore — Private sector banks collected ₹4,948.71 crore in FY 2025–26 as non-maintenance penalties for minimum account balances.
Q42. How many pieces of ₹10 polymer banknotes has the Reserve Bank of India proposed for field trials?
- (A) 50 crore pieces
- (B) 100 crore pieces
- (C) 150 crore pieces
- (D) 200 crore pieces
- (E) 250 crore pieces
Show answer
Answer: (B) 100 crore pieces — The Reserve Bank of India proposed the field trial introduction of 100 crore pieces of ₹10 notes alongside 100 crore pieces of ₹20 notes.
Q43. Hyderabad-based fintech company Viyona received certification to operate in which capacity under the Bharat Bill Payment System (Bharat Connect)?
- (A) Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit (BBPCU)
- (B) Customer Operating Unit (COU)
- (C) Agent Institution (AI)
- (D) Payment Gateway Aggregator
- (E) Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) Issuer
Show answer
Answer: (B) Customer Operating Unit (COU) — Viyona received certification to operate as a Customer Operating Unit (COU) under the Bharat Bill Payment System.
Q44. Which cooperative bank announced the launch of the 'Gen Z Tech Loan' scheme for purchasing laptops and tablets?
- (A) Karnataka Apex Central Cooperative Bank
- (B) Kerala State Cooperative Bank
- (C) Tamil Nadu State Apex Cooperative Bank
- (D) Maharashtra State Cooperative Bank
- (E) Saraswat Cooperative Bank
Show answer
Answer: (B) Kerala State Cooperative Bank — Kerala State Cooperative Bank (Kerala Bank) announced the 'Gen Z Tech Loan' low-interest student loan scheme for purchasing tech hardware.
Q45. Which asset management entity recently secured SEBI approval to initiate mutual fund business for retail and institutional investors?
- (A) Helios Capital
- (B) Carnelian Asset Management
- (C) Bajaj Finserv Mutual Fund
- (D) Zerodha Fund House
- (E) Old Bridge Capital
Show answer
Answer: (B) Carnelian Asset Management — Carnelian Asset Management & Advisors received regulatory approval from SEBI to launch its mutual fund operations.
Q46. Under the PFRDA 'on-tap' registration guidelines, what is the minimum paid-up capital required for a company applying to become a Pension Fund Manager?
- (A) ₹10 crore
- (B) ₹15 crore
- (C) ₹25 crore
- (D) ₹50 crore
- (E) ₹100 crore
Show answer
Answer: (C) ₹25 crore — Applying firms must hold a minimum paid-up capital of ₹25 crore on the date of application, along with a positive net worth of ₹50 crore in each of the last five fiscal years.
Q47. What was the total value of UPI transactions recorded in India during Financial Year 2025-26?
- (A) ₹150 lakh crore
- (B) ₹210 lakh crore
- (C) ₹280 lakh crore
- (D) ₹314.23 lakh crore
- (E) ₹400 lakh crore
Show answer
Answer: (D) ₹314.23 lakh crore — As per data shared in Parliament, UPI transaction value crossed ₹314.23 lakh crore in FY 2025-26 with over 24,161 crore transactions.
Q48. Delhivery Financial Services recently received RBI approval to operate as a 'Type-II NBFC'. What does a 'Non-Deposit Taking' (ND) status signify for such an institution?
- (A) The institution cannot raise public deposits.
- (B) The institution is barred from lending money.
- (C) The institution can accept savings accounts but not fixed deposits.
- (D) The institution is exempt from all capital adequacy norms.
- (E) The institution can only operate in rural areas.
Show answer
Answer: (A) The institution cannot raise public deposits. — A Non-Deposit Taking NBFC (NBFC-ND) is authorized to offer credit and financial services but is strictly prohibited from accepting demand or time deposits from the general public.
Q49. Which of the following countries were removed from the FATF's Grey List in the June 2026 update, as notified by the RBI?
- (A) Iraq and Bosnia
- (B) Algeria and Namibia
- (C) Namibia and Iraq
- (D) Algeria and Bosnia
- (E) Namibia and Bosnia
Show answer
Answer: (B) Algeria and Namibia — In the FATF update of June 2026, Algeria and Namibia were removed from the Grey List, while Bosnia and Herzegovina, and Iraq were added to it.
Q50. What are the respective weights assigned to the three dimensions of the Reserve Bank of India's Financial Inclusion (FI) Index—Access, Usage, and Quality?
- (A) Access: 30%, Usage: 50%, Quality: 20%
- (B) Access: 35%, Usage: 45%, Quality: 20%
- (C) Access: 40%, Usage: 40%, Quality: 20%
- (D) Access: 25%, Usage: 55%, Quality: 20%
- (E) Access: 35%, Usage: 40%, Quality: 25%
Show answer
Answer: (B) Access: 35%, Usage: 45%, Quality: 20% — The RBI FI Index is calculated based on three dimensions with specific weights: Access (35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%).
Q51. Which digital platform or mobile application of IndusInd Bank is designed for MSMEs to facilitate seamless transactions like EPFO payments?
- (A) Indus Direct
- (B) INDIE for Business
- (C) Indus Merchant
- (D) Indus Pay
- (E) EPF-Connect
Show answer
Answer: (B) INDIE for Business — INDIE for Business is IndusInd Bank's dedicated mobile banking platform for MSMEs, while Indus Direct serves as its Corporate Internet Banking platform.
Q52. Which of the following nations were removed from the Financial Action Task Force Grey List in the June 2026 revisions?
- (A) Iraq and Namibia
- (B) Bosnia and Herzegovina
- (C) Algeria and Namibia
- (D) Algeria and Iraq
- (E) Namibia and Bosnia
Show answer
Answer: (C) Algeria and Namibia — In the June 2026 changes, Algeria and Namibia were removed from the FATF Grey List, while Bosnia and Herzegovina and Iraq were added.
Q53. What is the weightage assigned to the 'Usage' dimension in the Reserve Bank of India's Financial Inclusion Index?
- (A) 20%
- (B) 35%
- (C) 45%
- (D) 50%
- (E) 60%
Show answer
Answer: (C) 45% — The RBI Financial Inclusion Index is calculated based on three dimensions with specific weights: Access (35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%).
Q54. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the 'Gramodyam' programme launched by NABARD?
- (A) It is a 5-year pilot phase programme aiming to train 10,000 urban entrepreneurs.
- (B) It has been launched in partnership with the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
- (C) The program is being executed through the Institute for Industrial Development (IID) in collaboration with NSDC.
- (D) It was launched on NABARD's 50th Foundation Day by the Union Minister of Finance.
- (E) The primary funding is being managed entirely by the World Bank.
Show answer
Answer: (C) The program is being executed through the Institute for Industrial Development (IID) in collaboration with NSDC. — The Gramodyam scheme is a 3-year pilot program targeting 4,000 rural entrepreneurs, implemented through the Institute for Industrial Development (IID) in collaboration with the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. It was launched on NABARD's 45th Foundation Day.
Q55. Which Indian public sector undertaking recently raised USD 300 million via Floating Rate Notes (FRNs) under its USD 8 billion GMTN Programme?
- (A) NTPC Limited
- (B) Power Finance Corporation (PFC)
- (C) REC Limited
- (D) Power Grid Corporation of India
- (E) NHPC Limited
Show answer
Answer: (B) Power Finance Corporation (PFC) — Power Finance Corporation (PFC) raised USD 300 million by issuing Floating Rate Notes (FRNs) under its USD 8 billion Global Medium Term Note (GMTN) Programme.
Q56. Which foreign insurance company is set to become the first to acquire 100% ownership in an Indian life insurance joint venture?
- (A) Allianz
- (B) AXA
- (C) Prudential
- (D) Aviva
- (E) MetLife
Show answer
Answer: (D) Aviva — Aviva announced plans to acquire the remaining 26% stake from Dabur Invest Corp to become the first foreign insurer in India to hold a 100% ownership stake.
Q57. With reference to the revised Reserve Bank Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS) 2026, consider the following statements: 1. There is no upper limit on the dispute amount a complainant can bring before the Ombudsman. 2. The Ombudsman is empowered to grant compensation up to Rs 50 lakh for consequential financial loss. 3. Compensation up to Rs 3 lakh can be awarded for harassment and loss of time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) 1 only
- (B) 1 and 3 only
- (C) 2 and 3 only
- (D) 1 and 2 only
- (E) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only — Statement 1 is correct as there is no limit on the dispute amount. Statement 2 is incorrect because the maximum compensation for consequential financial loss is Rs 30 lakh, not Rs 50 lakh. Statement 3 is correct as an additional compensation of up to Rs 3 lakh can be awarded for harassment, mental agony, and loss of time.
Q58. Who has been re-appointed as the non-executive chairman of Axis Bank for a three-year term starting October 27, 2026?
- (A) Amitabh Chaudhry
- (B) N S Vishwanathan
- (C) Challa Sreenivasulu Setty
- (D) Rangan Banerjee
- (E) Urjit Patel
Show answer
Answer: (B) N S Vishwanathan — The Reserve Bank of India approved the re-appointment of N S Vishwanathan, a former deputy governor of the RBI, as the non-executive chairman of Axis Bank for a term of three years starting October 27, 2026.
Q59. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) and Dilip Asbe's recent appointment?
- (A) Dilip Asbe's appointment marks India's second direct representation on SWIFT's top board.
- (B) SWIFT is a financial institution that directly holds assets and executes fund transfers.
- (C) The SWIFT code always consists of a mandatory 11-character alphanumeric structure.
- (D) SWIFT was established in 1973 and is headquartered in La Hulpe, Belgium.
- (E) NPCI has no relation with SWIFT's messaging networks.
Show answer
Answer: (D) SWIFT was established in 1973 and is headquartered in La Hulpe, Belgium. — SWIFT was established in 1973 and is headquartered in La Hulpe, Belgium. Dilip Asbe's appointment is India's first direct representation. SWIFT does not transfer or hold money. The code has 8 or 11 characters (the last 3 are optional).
Q60. Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the newly constituted SEBI Expert Working Group to review debenture trustee regulations?
- (A) Rajnish Kumar
- (B) Ananta Barua
- (C) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
- (D) Madhabi Puri Buch
- (E) U.K. Sinha
Show answer
Answer: (B) Ananta Barua — The SEBI Expert Working Group is chaired by Ananta Barua, former Whole-Time Member of SEBI. Rajnish Kumar is the co-chair.
Q61. Which company recently received in-principle approval from the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) to set up a Payment Services Provider subsidiary at GIFT City?
- (A) HiWiPay
- (B) Razorpay
- (C) PhonePe
- (D) BharatPe
- (E) Paytm
Show answer
Answer: (A) HiWiPay — HiWiPay has received in-principle approval from the IFSCA to establish a wholly owned Payment Services Provider (PSP) subsidiary at GIFT City.
Q62. What is the deadline set by the IFSCA for uploading the KYC records of all existing active customers onto the KRA system?
- (A) 1 September 2026
- (B) 30 September 2026
- (C) 1 October 2026
- (D) 30 October 2026
- (E) 31 December 2026
Show answer
Answer: (D) 30 October 2026 — According to the IFSCA's proposal, KYC records of all existing active customers must be uploaded to the KRA by 30 October 2026, while new customers must be onboarded through KRAs from 1 September 2026.
Q63. Following IRDAI's approval of Prudential HCL Health Insurance Limited, what is the total number of standalone health insurance companies operating in India?
- (A) Five
- (B) Six
- (C) Seven
- (D) Eight
- (E) Ten
Show answer
Answer: (D) Eight — With the licensing of Prudential HCL Health Insurance, the number of standalone health insurance companies in India has risen to eight.
Q64. According to the June 2026 digital payment statistics released by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), what was the transaction value of UPI transactions?
- (A) 25.10 lakh crore rupees
- (B) 29.90 lakh crore rupees
- (C) 28.92 lakh crore rupees
- (D) 22.72 lakh crore rupees
- (E) 30.50 lakh crore rupees
Show answer
Answer: (C) 28.92 lakh crore rupees — The UPI transaction value for June 2026 was 28.92 lakh crore rupees, which represents a 3% decline from 29.90 lakh crore rupees in May.
Q65. Ravi Shankar has been appointed as the Executive Director (ED) of which organization, where he will oversee the Department of Statistics and Information Management (DSIM)?
- (A) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- (C) NABARD
- (D) State Bank of India (SBI)
- (E) SIDBI
Show answer
Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) — The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) appointed Ravi Shankar as Executive Director (ED), supervising the Department of Statistics and Information Management (DSIM).
Q66. What is the minimum Fixed Deposit (FD) amount required to open the newly launched 'Paisa+' Secured Credit Card by Paisabazaar and SBM Bank India?
- (A) Rs 1,000
- (B) Rs 2,000
- (C) Rs 5,000
- (D) Rs 10,000
- (E) Rs 1,500
Show answer
Answer: (B) Rs 2,000 — The Paisa+ secured credit card allows customers to start their credit-building journey with a minimum fixed deposit of Rs 2,000.
Q67. Consider the following statements regarding the launch of UPI in Greece: 1. The service was launched through a partnership between NIPL and Eurobank. 2. Greece has become the 10th country to accept UPI in some format. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) Only 1
- (B) Only 2
- (C) Both 1 and 2
- (D) Neither 1 nor 2
- (E) Cannot be determined
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 — Both statements are correct. The partnership was executed between NIPL and Eurobank, and Greece is indeed the 10th country to enable UPI in different forms.
June 2026
Q68. Which AI-powered fintech platform recently obtained NPCI's approval to operate as a Third Party Application Provider (TPAP) for UPI payments?
- (A) Jupiter
- (B) CRED
- (C) jUMPP
- (D) Fi Money
- (E) Slice
Show answer
Answer: (C) jUMPP — jUMPP, an AI-powered fintech platform, secured approval from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to operate as a Third Party Application Provider (TPAP) for UPI transactions.
Q69. The AI-powered trade and payments platform LEXI Money has received in-principle approval to operate as a Payment Service Provider from which regulatory body?
- (A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- (B) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- (C) International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA)
- (D) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
- (E) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)
Show answer
Answer: (C) International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) — LEXI Money IFSC Private Limited received in-principle approval from the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) to operate as a Payment Service Provider (PSP) at GIFT-IFSC in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
Q70. Which bank has partnered with the AI-driven fintech platform jUMPP as its Payment Service Provider (PSP) bank for its UPI operations?
- (A) State Bank of India
- (B) HDFC Bank
- (C) YES Bank Limited
- (D) ICICI Bank
- (E) Axis Bank
Show answer
Answer: (C) YES Bank Limited — jUMPP has partnered with YES Bank Limited as its Payment Service Provider (PSP) bank to integrate and run UPI services after securing TPAP approval from NPCI.
Q71. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's draft Master Directions on Term Money Markets: 1. Non-Banking Financial Companies (excluding Base Layer NBFCs) have a maximum borrowing limit of 200% of their Net Owned Funds (NOF). 2. Standalone Primary Dealers (SPDs) can borrow up to 400% of their NOF in the Call & Notice Money Market. 3. Transactions executed outside the NDS-CALL platform must be reported within 15 minutes. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only 1 and 2
- (B) Only 2 and 3
- (C) Only 1 and 3
- (D) All 1, 2, and 3
- (E) None of the above
Show answer
Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3 — Statement 1 is correct as NBFCs & HFCs (excluding base layer entities) have a borrowing limit of 200% of NOF. Statement 2 is incorrect because the limit for SPDs in the Call & Notice Money Market is up to 225% of NOF, while up to 400% of NOF is for Term Money + Inter-Corporate Deposits. Statement 3 is correct as transactions executed outside the NDS-CALL platform must be reported within 15 minutes.
Q72. Which Indian fintech startup recently obtained its first international payment service license in Canada to expand its cross-border services?
- (A) Razorpay
- (B) Pine Labs
- (C) Skydo
- (D) PhonePe
- (E) BharatPe
Show answer
Answer: (C) Skydo — Bengaluru-based fintech startup Skydo secured an international payment license in Canada, marking its first international expansion outside India.
Q73. Which is the first Indian Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) to utilize the RBI's subsidized hedging facility for its $300 million dollar bond issuance?
- (A) REC Limited
- (B) Power Finance Corporation (PFC)
- (C) IREDA
- (D) HDFC Limited
- (E) LIC Housing Finance
Show answer
Answer: (B) Power Finance Corporation (PFC) — Power Finance Corporation (PFC) became the first NBFC to utilize the Reserve Bank of India's subsidized hedging facility to manage foreign currency risks for its $300 million dollar bond issuance.
Q74. Under the regulatory directions placed on Mogaveera Co-operative Bank, what is the maximum deposit insurance coverage available to any depositor via DICGC?
- (A) Rs 1 lakh
- (B) Rs 2 lakh
- (C) Rs 3 lakh
- (D) Rs 5 lakh
- (E) Rs 10 lakh
Show answer
Answer: (D) Rs 5 lakh — The maximum insurance coverage offered to a bank depositor by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) in India is capped at Rs 5 lakh, regardless of individual withdrawal limits imposed during temporary restrictions.
Q75. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the RBI guidelines for a Self-Regulatory Organisation in the Account Aggregator ecosystem (SRO-AA)?\n1. The SRO-AA must be registered as a Section 8 company under the Companies Act, 2013.\n2. It must maintain a minimum net worth of ₹5 crore within one year of recognition.\n3. No single entity or group acting in concert can hold 10% or more of the paid-up share capital.
- (A) Only 1
- (B) Only 1 and 2
- (C) Only 1 and 3
- (D) Only 2 and 3
- (E) All 1, 2, and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3 — According to the RBI guidelines, an SRO-AA must be registered as a Section 8 (not-for-profit) company (Statement 1 is correct). It must maintain a minimum net worth of ₹2 crore (not ₹5 crore) within one year of recognition (Statement 2 is incorrect). Diversified shareholding is required, and no single entity/group can hold 10% or more of the paid-up share capital (Statement 3 is correct).
Q76. Consider the following statements regarding the Account Aggregator (AA) framework: 1. Sahamati Foundation is the RBI-approved SRO for the AA ecosystem. 2. AAs store customer financial data to ensure easy retrieval in the future. 3. FIPs are institutions that hold the user data. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only 1 and 2
- (B) Only 2 and 3
- (C) Only 1 and 3
- (D) All 1, 2, and 3
- (E) Only 1
Show answer
Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3 — Statement 1 is correct (Sahamati is the designated SRO). Statement 2 is incorrect because AAs only facilitate the transfer of data; they do not store or use customer financial information. Statement 3 is correct (FIPs are institutions holding customer data).
Q77. Which of the following is correct regarding the fixed swap rate for the External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) swap window launched by RBI in June 2026?
- (A) 1.5% per annum, compounded annually
- (B) 1.5% per annum, compounded semi-annually
- (C) 2.0% per annum, compounded quarterly
- (D) At par with the prevailing market exchange rates
- (E) 1.0% per annum, compounded semi-annually
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1.5% per annum, compounded semi-annually — The second swap window for ECBs and OFCBs has a fixed swap rate set at 1.5% per annum, compounded semi-annually.
Q78. Which private sector bank has partnered with Centrum Finverse to launch an integrated 3-in-1 account?
- (A) HDFC Bank
- (B) ICICI Bank
- (C) Axis Bank
- (D) Bandhan Bank
- (E) IndusInd Bank
Show answer
Answer: (D) Bandhan Bank — Bandhan Bank has partnered with Centrum Finverse Ltd to launch an integrated 3-in-1 account (comprising Banking, Demat, and Trading accounts) on a single platform.
Q79. What is the standard testing duration allowed for entities under the newly launched PFRDA Regulatory Sandbox Framework?
- (A) Up to 3 months
- (B) Up to 6 months
- (C) Up to 9 months
- (D) Exactly 12 months
- (E) Up to 18 months
Show answer
Answer: (C) Up to 9 months — The Regulatory Sandbox framework introduced by PFRDA allows a standard testing duration of up to 9 months for innovators to test their products.
Q80. What was the main reason cited by the Reserve Bank of India for the 23.5% drop in currency printing expenditure during FY26?
- (A) Complete transition to polymer-based currency notes
- (B) Massive surge in the public adoption of CBDC (e-Rupee)
- (C) A lower indent or order placed for banknotes during the year
- (D) Closing down of two major printing presses in India
- (E) Introduction of advanced automated AI-driven printing machinery
Show answer
Answer: (C) A lower indent or order placed for banknotes during the year — According to the RBI, the decline in printing costs was primarily caused by a lower indent (order) for fresh banknotes during the fiscal year.
Q81. Which technological organization developed the newly operationalized 'STaR NPS' digital onboarding platform for the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)?
- (A) National Stock Exchange (NSE) IT
- (B) BSE Technologies Private Limited
- (C) Infosys Limited
- (D) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
- (E) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
Show answer
Answer: (B) BSE Technologies Private Limited — STaR NPS is a new digital onboarding platform developed by BSE Technologies Private Limited to facilitate faster and paperless NPS enrollment.
Q82. In the 61st MPC meeting, the Reserve Bank of India maintained the Repo Rate at 5.25%. What is the corresponding Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?
- (A) 4.75%
- (B) 5.00%
- (C) 5.50%
- (D) 5.25%
- (E) 5.75%
Show answer
Answer: (B) 5.00% — Following the decision to keep the Repo Rate unchanged at 5.25%, the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) remains at 5.00%, which is typically 25 basis points below the repo rate.
Q83. Under the RBI Second Amendment Directions 2026, fresh FCNR(B) deposits within which tenor range are exempted from CRR and SLR maintenance till September 30, 2026?
- (A) 1 year to 3 years
- (B) 2 years to 5 years
- (C) 3 years to 5 years
- (D) 5 years to 7 years
- (E) 1 year to 5 years
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3 years to 5 years — The RBI directive states that fresh FCNR (B) deposits of a minimum tenor of three years and a maximum tenor of five years will be exempted from CRR and SLR maintenance.
Q84. Which entity developed the 'StAR NPS' platform launched by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)?
- (A) National Stock Exchange (NSE) IT
- (B) BSE Technologies Private Limited (BTPL)
- (C) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
- (D) National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL)
- (E) Infosys Limited
Show answer
Answer: (B) BSE Technologies Private Limited (BTPL) — The 'StAR NPS' platform, which aims to simplify the NPS onboarding process, was developed by BSE Technologies Private Limited (BTPL).
Q85. What percentage of the total value of currency in circulation did ₹500 notes account for during the financial year 2025-26 (FY26)?
- (A) Over 50%
- (B) Over 65%
- (C) Over 75%
- (D) Over 85%
- (E) Over 95%
Show answer
Answer: (D) Over 85% — In value terms, ₹500 denomination notes accounted for more than 85% of the total value of currency in circulation during the financial year 2025-26.
Q86. What is the threshold limit above which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed a one-hour cooling-off period for digital payments?
- (A) ₹5,000
- (B) ₹10,000
- (C) ₹15,000
- (D) ₹20,000
- (E) ₹25,000
Show answer
Answer: (B) ₹10,000 — The RBI has proposed a one-hour cooling-off period for digital transactions exceeding ₹10,000 in its discussion paper titled 'Exploring Safeguards in Digital Payments to Curb Frauds'.
Q87. The trade and supply chain finance agreements signed between the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and Standard Chartered Bank have been structured through which financial center?
- (A) Mumbai International Financial Centre
- (B) GIFT City (Gujarat)
- (C) Bengaluru FinTech Park
- (D) Delhi Financial Hub
- (E) Chennai Financial City
Show answer
Answer: (B) GIFT City (Gujarat) — The risk-sharing trade and supply chain finance arrangement between ADB and Standard Chartered Bank has been structured through GIFT City (Gujarat International Finance Tec-City).
Q88. Which two organizations are jointly organizing the 'Niveshak Shivir' investor awareness and grievance redressal platform in Bhopal?
- (A) RBI and IRDAI
- (B) IEPFA and SEBI
- (C) PFRDA and LIC
- (D) SEBI and AMFI
- (E) NITI Aayog and BSE
Show answer
Answer: (B) IEPFA and SEBI — The 'Niveshak Shivir' is being organized through collaboration between the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA), under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Q89. Which public sector bank recently secured a licence from the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) to establish its branch at GIFT City, Gujarat?
- (A) State Bank of India
- (B) Indian Overseas Bank
- (C) Canara Bank
- (D) Punjab National Bank
- (E) Bank of Baroda
Show answer
Answer: (B) Indian Overseas Bank — Indian Overseas Bank (IOB) has received the IFSCA licence to establish its branch at the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City).
Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the launch of UPI in Cambodia: 1. Indian tourists can make payments in Cambodia by scanning Bakong's KHQR codes. 2. The initiative is powered by a collaboration between NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) and ACLEDA Bank Plc. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) Only 1
- (B) Only 2
- (C) Both 1 and 2
- (D) Neither 1 nor 2
- (E) Cannot be determined from the given information
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 — Both statements are correct. The cross-border UPI payment system in Cambodia allows Indian tourists to scan Bakong's KHQR codes, enabled by a partnership between NIPL and ACLEDA Bank Plc.
May 2026
Q91. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) guidelines in India under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013? 1. Companies must spend at least 2% of their average net profits of the previous three financial years. 2. The mandate applies to companies with a net worth of ₹500 crore or more, or a turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more, or a net profit of ₹5 crore or more. 3. Companies can now invest up to 10% of their annual CSR expenditure through Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) instruments.
- (A) Only 1
- (B) Only 1 and 2
- (C) Only 2 and 3
- (D) Only 1 and 3
- (E) All 1, 2, and 3
Show answer
Answer: (E) All 1, 2, and 3 — All three statements are correct. Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, companies meeting the specified financial thresholds must spend 2% of their average net profit on CSR, and a recent MCA notification allows them to deploy up to 10% of this budget in ZCZP instruments on the Social Stock Exchange.
Q92. Which fintech company recently received in-principle approval from the RBI for an Offline Payment Aggregator (PA-P) licence?
- (A) PhonePe
- (B) BharatPe
- (C) MobiKwik
- (D) Paytm
- (E) Razorpay
Show answer
Answer: (C) MobiKwik — Fintech company MobiKwik has received in-principle approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a Payment Aggregator-Physical Point of Sale (PA-P) licence.
Q93. Who has been appointed as the convener of the RBI's newly formed eight-member Q-SAFE committee on quantum technology?
- (A) Prof. Manindra Agrawal
- (B) Prof. Anil Prabhakar
- (C) Siva Subramanian
- (D) KVS Manian
- (E) Elias George
Show answer
Answer: (B) Prof. Anil Prabhakar — Professor Anil Prabhakar from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras has been appointed as the convener of the RBI's Q-SAFE expert committee.
Q94. Eurobank has partnered with NPCI to become the first European bank facilitating UPI-based remittances to India from which of the following countries?
- (A) Germany and France
- (B) Greece and Cyprus
- (C) Spain and Portugal
- (D) Italy and Greece
- (E) Cyprus and Malta
Show answer
Answer: (B) Greece and Cyprus — Eurobank is the first European bank to enable cross-border remittances from Greece and Cyprus to India using the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) infrastructure in partnership with NPCI.
Q95. Under the newly introduced 'RIS Steady' option by PFRDA, how does the equity allocation behave as a subscriber ages from 60 to 75?
- (A) Reduces from 50% to 15%
- (B) Reduces from 35% to 10%
- (C) Remains constant at 25%
- (D) Reduces from 40% to 20%
- (E) Increases from 10% to 35%
Show answer
Answer: (B) Reduces from 35% to 10% — Under the 'RIS Steady' option, the equity exposure is designed to follow a lifecycle investment approach, gradually reducing from 35% at the age of 60 to 10% by the age of 75.
Q96. Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), what is the maximum amount that a resident individual, including minors, is allowed to remit abroad per financial year?
- (A) USD 100,000
- (B) USD 150,000
- (C) USD 200,000
- (D) USD 250,000
- (E) USD 500,000
Show answer
Answer: (D) USD 250,000 — Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) guidelines set by the Reserve Bank of India, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 250,000 per financial year for permissible current or capital account transactions.
Q97. Who is the head of the 8-member expert committee 'Q-SAFE' constituted by the Reserve Bank of India to assess quantum technology risks in banking?
- (A) Dilip Asbe
- (B) Vinayak Godse
- (C) Anil Prabhakar
- (D) Sunil Kumar
- (E) Manoj Kumar Jain
Show answer
Answer: (C) Anil Prabhakar — The 8-member expert committee named Q-SAFE is led by Prof. Anil Prabhakar from the Indian Institute of Technology Madras, who acts as the Convener of the committee.
Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India's new governance norms for co-operative bank directors: 1. A mandatory cooling-off period of three years is applicable only to Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs). 2. The maximum continuous tenure limit for co-operative bank directors has been extended from 8 years to 10 years. 3. During the cooling-off period, directors can still serve as regular consultants or advisory members of the same bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) 1 and 2 only
- (B) 2 only
- (C) 3 only
- (D) 2 and 3 only
- (E) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only — Statement 1 is incorrect because the norms apply to Urban, Rural, State, and Central Co-operative banks. Statement 3 is incorrect because during the cooling-off period, the individual cannot be associated with the same bank in any capacity except as a regular member or customer. Statement 2 is correct as the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2025 increased the maximum continuous tenure limit from 8 to 10 years.
Q99. What is the exact name of the new 10 billion dollar crisis relief facility launched by the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) in May 2026?
- (A) Global Energy and Infrastructure Resilience Fund (GEIRF)
- (B) Energy, Food Security and Economic Resilience Facility (EFSERF)
- (C) West Asian Geopolitical Mitigation Facility (WAGMF)
- (D) Food Security and Emergency Liquidity Support Platform (FSELSP)
- (E) Multilateral Economic Recovery and Import Facility (MERIF)
Show answer
Answer: (B) Energy, Food Security and Economic Resilience Facility (EFSERF) — In May 2026, the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) officially launched the 'Energy, Food Security and Economic Resilience Facility (EFSERF)' with an outlay of up to 10 billion US dollars over two years to support member nations impacted by the economic effects of conflicts in the Middle East.
Q100. With reference to the RBI's FY26 surplus transfer, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Contingent Risk Buffer was maintained at the upper boundary of 7.5 percent of the total balance sheet. (2) The transfer of surplus profits is legally mandated under Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934.
- (A) Only 1
- (B) Only 2
- (C) Both 1 and 2
- (D) Neither 1 nor 2
- (E) Cannot be determined from the data
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only 2 — Statement 1 is incorrect because the Contingent Risk Buffer was maintained at 6.5 percent (not 7.5 percent) of the balance sheet size. Statement 2 is correct because Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934, legally defines and mandates the transfer of surplus profits to the Central Government.
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